Thanks for the analysis. Is this an instance where authority, in this case SEC, intentionally resorts the issue at hand to judicial and representatives for its logical conclusion, because it feels inadequate in addressing the issues appropriately without public mandates?
Thanks for the analysis. Is this an instance where authority, in this case SEC, intentionally resorts the issue at hand to judicial and representatives for its logical conclusion, because it feels inadequate in addressing the issues appropriately without public mandates?